Wednesday, February 11, 2009

How are we defining modernity and post-modernity? Are we living in a modern society, or a post-modern society? Habermas contends “the term ‘modern’ again and again expresses the consciousness of an epoch that relates itself to the past of antiquity, in order to view itself as the result of a transition from the old to the new” (Habermas 98). What is ‘modern’ and what is ‘classic’ have become difficult to distinguish: the “modern work becomes a classic because it has once been authentically modern” (Habermas 99). In other words, for how long is something modern before it is considered classical? Is post-modernity any different from modernity?

If modernity is defined as it is above, as always seeking a “landscape into which no one seems to have yet ventured” (Habemas 99), post-modernity is the notion of modernity in a new era. In this new era, the capitalist is far more ruthless.

The capitalist – whose power ranges from power of ideology, to politics, to the economy – is a trend setting machine. What was modern is now classical, or necessary. Thus the notion of commodification: everyone wants what is trendy, but trendy is expensive – it’s new, it’s not stable, but everyone wants it. The iPod, though not unstable when it first was released, was a completely revolutionary product… now, you’ve got to have it. Have you looked at Apple’s iPod lineup lately? There is a shuffle, nano, touch, and (drum role please) the classic. A few thoughts here: I find it ironic that the iPod classic has its name because while it is classic in the sense that to Apple, it is the eight year ‘old’ classic design, but there is still no other product that matches its performance on the market today, and I'm still amazed how far we've come in so little time. The same will be true for the iPhone, too. It’s amazing how time sells.

1 comment:

CMC300 said...

Good post. Your analysis of the Ipod lineup is interesting. Who are you though?!? There is not title.

-Starfish